MPSC Food Safety Officer Food and Medicine Administration Gr-B-Exam 2016 Solved Question Paper

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MPSC Food Safety Officer Food and Medicine Administration Gr-B-Exam 2016 Solved Question Paper

Question 1 :
State Bank of India (SBI) launched and inaugurated India's first start-up focussed
bank branch called as
ASBI Startup
BSBI InCube

CSBI Progressive
DSBI Venture

Question 2 :
For the first time since 1950, a foreign army contingent marched down the Rajpath
during the Republic Day parade on 26th January, 2016. To which country did this
army troop belong ?
AChina
BFrance

CGermany
DDenmark

Question 3 :
Odisha Government announced a new scheme 'Anwesha'. According to this scheme
ASC and ST women would be enrolled into various employment schemes of the State.
BSC and ST elderly people would be given pension.
CSC and ST children would annually be enrolled into Standard I in leading private schools in urban areas of the State.

DSC and ST youth would annually be enrolled into leading private companies in urban areas of the State.

Da, b, c and d

DAll the above

Question 7 :
Which one of the following statements about BRAHMOS is not correct ?
AIt is a short range supersonic cruise missile.
BIt is a joint venture between India and France.

CIt can be launched from ships, aircraft or land.
DIt has a maximum range of 290 km.

Question 8 :
Recently, which of the following has been declared unconstitutional by the Supreme
Court of India ?
ANational Judicial Appointments Commission

BNational Green Tribunal
CNIT1 Aayog
DCollegium System

Question 9 :
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
AVidya Devi Bhandari was elected as Nepal's first woman President by the Parliament.
B54-year-old Bhandari secured 327 votes against 214 votes of her rival Kul Bahadur Gurung.
CShe was the President of CPN-UML (Communist Party of Nepal-Unified Marxist Leninist).

DShe succeeded incumbent Ram Baran Yadav who was elected as the country's first President in 2008.

Question 12 :
A statement is given and a and b are assumptions related to it. Select the option that
is true with respect to the given statements.
The king has decided to levy 3% tax on the amount payable for funding drought
relief programmes.
a. The king does not have sufficient money to fund drought relief programmes.
b. The amount collected by way of surcharge may be adequate to fund these
drought relief programmes.
AOnly a implies
BBoth a and b imply

COnly b implies
DNeither a nor b implies

Question 13 :
Which letter replaces the question mark ?

N 250 R

T 497 Y

Y 396 P

K 127 L

G 176 ?
AB
BP
CU
DZ

Question 14 :
Which alphabet will replace the question mark
AQ

Question 15 :
Which number does not belong to the group

(a) 83 (b) 73 (c) 46 (d) 38
A46
B73

Question 16 :
Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in
27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The
ratio of their speeds is
A3:2

Question 17 :
Which figure will replace the question mark
A

B
C
DNone of these

Question 18 :
How many single-coloured triangles are present in the accompanying diagram
A36
B40

Question 19 :
Select the option in which frame a is embedded.
A
B
C
D

Question 20 :
Ani and Kuni decided to meet at a museum that is towards south of their housing
society. Ani started at 12:OO noon at the speed of 60 kph. Kuni starts her journey
after 15 minutes with the speed of 65 kph. Select the time at which they will meet.
A3:00 pm
B3:10 pm
C3:15 pm

D3:20 pm

Question 21 :
Which one of the following statements about 'Secular State' is not correct ?
AThe State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion.
BThe State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.
CAll persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion.
DAll persons shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Question 22 :
Match the following :
a. Right to Constitutional Remedies I. Article 24
b. Abolition of untouchability II. Article 21
c. Protection of life and personal liberty III. Article 17
d. Prohibition of employment of children in factories IV. Article 32
AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Question 23 :
Which of the following i/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
a. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
b. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks
and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Aa only
Bb only

CBoth a and b
DNeither a nor b

Question 24 :
The President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of
AMembers of Parliament and State Legislature
BElected members of Parliament and elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies
CElected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies

DNone of the above

Question 25 :
What is correct about State Legislative Council ?

a. Its tenure is 6 years.
b. The tenure of its members is 6 years.
c. 1/6 members are elected by local institutions.
d. 1/6members are elected by Legislative Assembly.
e. 1/12members are nominated by the Governor.
Aa, b, c and d
Bb, d and e
Ca and b
Db only

Question 26 :
GIS stands for ............
AGeographical Information System

BGraphical Information System
CGraphic Investigation System
DGeographical Investigation System

Question 27 :
In IPv6, the.............. field in the base header restricts the life time of a datagram.
Aversion
Bnext-header
Chop limit

Dpayload length

Question 28 :
"Punarjani", one of the media lab Asia projects is a/an
AOntology building and management tool
BWeb portal for empowering the disabled
CAssessment tool for mentally retarded children

DNone of the above

Question 29 :
XML stands for ...................
AExtensible Markup Language

BExtra Markup Language
CExtensible Markup Link
DExtra Markup Link

Question 30 :
According to IT Act, 2000, Clause 65, punishment for tampering with computer
source documents under observation is
Aimprisonment up to 3 years, or a fine which may be extended up to 2 lakh rupees, or both.

BImprisonment up to 2 years, or a fine which may be extended up to 3 lakh rupees, or both.
Cimprisonment up to 1 year, or a fine which may be extended up to 2 lakh rupees, or both.
Dimprisonment up to 2 years, or a fine which may be extended up to one lakh rupees, or both.

Question 31 :
What is not included in 'Information' under the RTI Act, 2005 ?
AOpinion
BData Material
CFile Noting
DNone of the above

Question 32 :
Consider the following statements :
a. State Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 7 years
and shall be eligible for reappointment.
b. State Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office till he attains the age of
70 (seventy) years.
ABoth a and b are correct
BBoth a and b are wrong

Question 33 :
A complaint is liable to be received by the Statelcentral Information Commission
from a person
a. who has been refused the information that was requested.
b. who has not submitted an information request to PIO.
c. who thinks that thefees charged are unreasonable.
Which of the statements given above isfare correct ?
Ab only
Ba and b only
Ca and c only

Da, b and c

Question 34 :
Where the Central or State Information Commission is of the opinion that the PI0
has given incorrect, incomplete or misleading information knowingly, then it shall
impose a penalty the total amount of which shall not exceed
AINR 30000 (thirty thousand)
BINR 50000 (fifty thousand)
CINR 250000 (2 lacs fifty thousand)
DINR 25000 (twenty-five thousand)

Question 35 :
From amongst the following which statement(s) is/are correct about the Right to
Information Ad ?
a. This Act does not create any offence on the part of citizens.
b. It rather created the wilful failure on the part of the Public Information Officer
a punishable offence.
AOnly a
BOnly b
CBoth a and b

DNeither a nor b

Question 36 :
To whom does the State Hurnan Rights Commission submit an annual report ?
AGovernor of the State
BPresident of India
CState Legislature
DState Government

Question 37 :
Which of the following is not a political Right ?
ARight to vote
BRight to criticize the Government
CRight to own property

DRight to file petition

Question 39 :
According to the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act,
1986, a child is a person who has not completed
A16 years of age
B18 years of age
C14 years of age

D21 years of age

Question 40 :
Which kind of property of certain persons can be ordered to be forfeited by special
courts under S.C. and S.T. (Protection of Atrocities) Act, 1989 ?
AAny movable or immovable property belonging to that person.
BAny movable or immovable property or both belonging to the family of that person.
CAny movable or immovable property or both belonging to that person which has been used for the commission of that offence.

DAny movable property belonging to that person which has been used for the commission of that offence.

Question 41 :
The correct IUPAC name for the given structure is
A3-hydroxy-2-methylpent-5-al-en
B3-hydroxy-4-methylpent-4-en-1-al

C3-hydroxy-4-methylpent-1-al-4-ene
D3-hydroxy-2-methylpent-1-en-5-al

Question 42 :
Which of the following is the best method for preparation of common detergent
sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate (C) ?
A

Question 43 :
In the periodic table, to which period and group, does the non-metallic element
which exists in liquid state at room temperature belong ?
A2nd period - lst group
B4th period - 17th group

C2nd period - 16th group
D5th period - 17th group

Question 44 :
The correct order of increasing stability of carbonium ion is
Atertiary > secondary > primary

Bprimary > secondary > tertiary
Csecondary > tertiary > primary
Dprimary > tertiary > secondary

Question 45 :
Match the columns :
Group I Group II
a. Surfadants I. Alkylaryl sulphonates
b. Dye intermediates II. Benzene
c. Lacquers III. Cellulose acetate
d. Solvents IV. Ethyl acetate
V. Anthracene
AA-I,III ,B-V, C-III,IV, D-I,II,IV
BA-I, B-II,V, C-III, D-II,IV

CA-I, B-IV, C-III,IV, D-II,IV
DA-I,III, B-V, C-III, D-II,IV

Question 48 :
What is the major product in the following reaction ?
A
B

Question 49 :
The correct IUPAC name for the following compound is
A2-chloro-5-fluoro-1 hydroxybenzene
B1-hydroxy-2-chloro-5-fluorobenzene
C1-fluoro-3-hydroxy-4-chlorobenzene
Dnone of these

Question 50 :
Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their UV absorption
maxima :

a. Ethylene b. Naphthalene
c. Anthracene d. 1, 3-Butadiene
Choose the correct order.
Aa < b < c < d
Ba < d < c < b

Question 51 :
The most susceptible to oxidation in a protein molecule are the SH groups of which
amino acid ?
ACysteine

Question 52 :
The most susceptible mineral lost during cooking of food on the basis of presence as
free ions is
ACalcium
BIron
CPotassium

DNone of the above

Question 53 :
The most common adulterant used in coffee is
AChicory

BTamarind
CDate seed powder
DAll of the above

Question 54 :
Parabens, as a group of microbial preservatives, are ineffective especially against
one of the following microorganisms :
AGram-negative bacteria

Question 55 :
Which of the prepackaging treatments is recommended for potatoes, sweet potatoes,
onions and garlic prior to storage or marketing ?
APrecooling
BCuring

CWaxing
DDegreening

Question 56 :
A food product process condition coined by contamination, mixing and processing
under uncontrolled conditions, and rendering it unfit for consumption is referred as
AFortification
BAdulteration

CEnrichment
DNone of the above

Question 57 :
An article of food shall be deemed to be non-adulterated if
Aany natural constituent is removed therefrom.
Bany artificial colour is added thereto more than permissible limits.
Cit contains any prohibited preservative.
Dtwo or more articles of food (primary) are mixed together.

Question 58 :
Which of the following are not conjugated proteins ?
AGlycoproteins
BScleroproteins

CPhosphoproteins
DHaemoglobins

Question 59 :
Among the biological hazards, which of the bacteria in food causes infection and not
intoxication ?
AEscherichia coli

BClostridiurn botulinum
CStaphylococcus aureus
DClostridiurn perfringens

Question 60 :
Which one of the following acids is used to detect vanaspati adulteration in pure
ghee ?
AConcentrated sulphuric acid
BDilute sulphuric acid
CConcentrated hydrochloric acid

DDilute hydrochloric acid

Question 61 :
Fruits and vegetables based soups and sauces are categorized as
Alow acid foods
Bmedium acid foods

Cacid foods
Dhigh acid foods

Question 62 :
The post harvest transportation and storage of banana for distant marketing with
minimum chilling injury is carried out at what temperatures ?
A1-7 °C
B8 - 10 °C
C11 - 13 °C

D14 - 17 °C

Question 63 :
The difference in UHT pasteurized milk and extended shelf life treated pasteurized
milk is of
ATemperature of heating
BHolding time
CMicrobial filtration

DNone of the above

Question 64 :
Which one of the following is not a physical hurdle used in preservation of foods
AElectromagnetic energy
BModified atmospheric storage
CUltrasonication
DSmoking

Question 65 :
The critical electric field strength in Pulsed Electric Field processing for cell wall
rupture of E. coli should be
A1-2 kV/cm
B10 - 14 kV/cm

C15 - 20 kV/m
D24 - 28 kV/cm

Question 66 :
In the risk analysis of food additives, the JECFA secretariat should normally give
first priority to compounds
Athat have been assigned a temporary ADI or equivalent.

Bfood additives or groups of additives that have previously been evaluated and for which an ADI or equivalent has been assigned.
Cfood additives that have not been previously evaluated.
DNone of the above.

Question 67 :
India has been a member of the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) since the
year
A1964

Question 68 :
The core function of the National Codex Committee of India is
Amaximizing the opportunities for development of industry and expansion of international trade.
Bco-operation with joint FAO/WHO food standard programme.
Cnone of these

Dto co-operate with other local/regional or foreign organizations dealing with activities relating to food standardization.

Question 69 :
What is the function of Shadow Committee of NCC-India ?
ATo advise the NCCP/NCC on the implications of various food standardization, food quality and safety issues
BTo follow the codex agenda of the relevant subsidiary body and provide inputs to the government to assist in ensuring quality and safety of food to the consumer
CBoth (1) and (2)

DNone of the above

Question 70 :
CAC standards notified safe moisture content of quality grape raisins is
A13%
B15%
C18%

D20%

Question 71 :
The genetically modified (GM) food crops available in the international market are
designed to have the
AResistance to insect damage
BResistance to viral damage
CTolerance to certain herbicides
DAll of the above

Question 72 :
Organic fruit ripening is authenticated by the stimulatory action of one of the
following gaseous hormones :
AEthylene

Question 73 :
The US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) though insists that GM foods are safe,
but studies have shown that these are linked with
AIncreased food allergens
BIncreased gastrointestinal problems
CBoth (1) and (2)

DNone of the above

Question 74 :
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs made it mandatory to label packaged food from
one of the following cut-off date as
A1 January, 2013
B26 January, 2013
C1 February, 2013
Dnone of these

Question 75 :
The irradiation dose recommended for sprout inhibition in bulbs and tubers is
ALess than 1 kGy

B1- 10kGy
CMore than 10 kGy
DNone of the above

Question 76 :
Which one of the following processes records uniform heating to stabilize texture of
food products ?
AContact freeze drying
BAccelerated freeze drying
CRadiant freeze drying

DAll of the above

Question 77 :
Which one is the poorest method of food freezing ?
AFreezing in cold air blast
BFreezing with liquid air, Nz or COz
CFreezing in still air

DFreezing by direct immersion of food in a cooling medium

Question 78 :
Which one of the following functional ingredients improves gastrointestinal health
and also calcium absorption ?
AFructo-oligosaccharides

Question 79 :
Which one of the following foods is not the functional food ?
ADietary fiber
BProbiotics
COmega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids
DPills or capsules or sachets of foods as a part of everyday diet

Question 80 :
Which one of the following nanotechnology applications justifies the bubbling
potential in food corporate sector ?
ANanoencapsulation
BNanocomposites and food packaging
CNanosensors and nanosieves
DAll of the above

Question 81 :
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India shall consist of a chairperson and
expert members up to
A15
B20
C22

Question 82 :
Which one of the following Sections of FSSA is empowered to issue prohibition
order ?
A32
B33

Question 83 :
Which one is not the function of Commissioner of Food Safety of the State ?
ATo ensure an efficient and uniform implementation of standards of food safety
BTo sanction prosecution for offences punishable with imprisonment
CTo prohibit sale of any article of food for one year
Dnone of these

Question 84 :
Which one of the following ex-officio members is designated as Chairman of Central
Committee for Food Standards ?
AThe Director General, Health Services, Ministry of Health

BThe Director General, ICAR, New Delhi
CThe Director, Central Food Laboratory
DNone of the above

Question 85 :
The penalty for possessing an adulterant which is injurious to health of consumers is
AINR 1 Lakh
BINR 2 Lakh
CINR 5 Lakh
Dnone of these

Question 86 :
The microbial hazard caused by Listeria monocytogenes is categorized as
ASevere hazard
BModerate hazard

CLow hazard
DNone of the above

Question 87 :
A step at which control can be applied and is essential to prevent or eliminate a food
safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level is called as
AControl measure
BCorrective action
CCritical Control Point

DCritical limit

Question 88 :
Which one of the following is not a constituent part of the cleaning programme ?
ASpecifying areas, items of equipments and utensils to be cleaned
BSpecifying method and frequency of cleaning
CSpecifying monitoring arrangements
DRemoving gross debris from equipments

Question 89 :
Which one is not the food safety HACCP based principle standard operating
procedure developed by National Food Service Management Institute in conjunction
with USDA and FDA ?
ACleaning and sanitizing of food contact surfaces
BControlling of time and temperature during food preparation
CMaintenance of personal hygiene
Dnone of these

Question 90 :
Which one of the International Organization for Standardization (IS01 driven
systems is adopted by BIS as such ?
AIS/ISO 22000:2005

BBIS/ISO 22000:2005
CISI/ISO 22000 : 2005
DISI/ISO 22000:2005
ENone of the above

Question 91 :
Which clause of IS0 9001 : 2000 covers the requirements of the organization to
actually set up a quality management system, and broadly sets out the activities
associated with this ?
AClause 4.1

Question 92 :
Which one of the effective record keeping documentation systems compensates with
HACCP ?
ARecords of hazards and their control methods
BRecords of monitoring of safety requirements
CRecords of action taken to correct potential problems
DAll of the above

Question 93 :
What does IS0 22000 bring to the HACCP method ?
APrerequisite programmes and Operational prerequisite programmes
BCritical Control Points
CValidation
DAll of the above

Question 94 :
Which one of the following processes reduces contaminating bacterial load to human
health safety level ?
ACleaning
BDisinfection
CSterilization
DSanitization

Question 95 :
The prerequisite programmes in the food industry include
AGood Manufacturing Practices
BGood Hygienic Practices
CBoth (1) and (2)

DNone of the above

Question 97 :
The Consumer Protection Act was enacted during the year
A1976
B1986

C1996
D2006

Question 98 :
Match the following :
a. Food Additives Sectional Committee I. FAD-15
b. Fish and Fisheries Products Sectional II. FAD - 18
Committee
c. Food Hygiene, Safety Management and other III. FAD - 8
Systems Sectional Committee
d. Slaughter House and Meat Industry Sectional IV. FAD - 12
Committee
AA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
BA-III, B-IV- C-I, D-II

CA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
DA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Question 99 :
The Central Government has powers under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 to
control
AProduction of food
BSupply of food
CDistribution of food
DAll of the above

Question 100 :
The Section 3 of ECA, 1955 empowers the Government to
AControl production, supply, distribution, trade and commerce of essential commodities.

BControl distribution, trade and commerce of essential food commodities only.
CControl production and supply of non-food essential commodities.
DNone of the above

MPSC Previous Question Papers

MPSC Food Safety Officer Food and Medicine Administration Gr-B-Exam 2016 Solved Question Paper

N	250	R
T	497	Y
Y	396	P
K	127	L
G	176	?